Question by Jerry K: Christians, please have some sense when you quote JN 1:1, will you?
” In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” JN 1:1.
Does this mean “In the beginning was Jesus, and Jesus was with God, and Jesus was God.”?
The text does not read “In the beginning was Jesus”. John did not write the word Jesus in his original manuscript. If he had meant that, he could have simply used the name Jesus. John wrote what he knew to be the Truth. In the beginning was the “Spoken Word” (i.e. God’s Command). “Jesus” happens to be a SUBSTITUTION of the Greek word “Logos” used by the apostle. In reality the bible readers are implying, suggesting, alluding or insinuating the name of Jesus. The concept of SUBSTITUTING the original Greek term ‘Logos’ with “Jesus” has been the traditional norm for the past many centuries. Hence it is not easy to believe otherwise. Is this “substitution” any where closer to the literal translation of the Greek word “Logos”? The answer is, No.
With the traditional “substitution” the verse reads; “and Jesus was with God and Jesus was God.” How can Jesus be “with” God, and “was” God, as well? It defies the logic(the chain of thoughts).
The LITERAL translation reads:
In the beginning was the ‘spoken word, command’, and the ‘spoken word, command’ was with God, and the ‘spoken word, command’ was Divine. JN 1:1
The opening of John’s Gospel coincides perfectly with the prologue of the Book of Genesis which reads; “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. And the God said, Let there be light; and there was light.”
(Genesis 1:1/ 3)
If you need to LIE, LIE Intelligently please. The people are getting cleverer and smarter. Its just a matter of time the TRUTH shall be known.
Answer by John D
You’re a fool.
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